Which of the following defines the involvement of industrial partners in losses?

The statement that industrial partners do not share losses if there is no profit-sharing agreement is accurate because, in partnership law, the distribution of profits and losses is often closely tied to the terms outlined in the partnership agreement. If there is no provision for sharing profits, it stands to reason that the same logic applies to the sharing of losses.

In partnerships, the nature of the contribution by each partner often dictates their rights and obligations. If an industrial partner is engaged primarily for their skill or labor and the partnership agreement doesn't allocate a share of profits, it can be interpreted that they are also not obligated to take on losses. This reflects the principle that without explicit agreement on how profits (or losses) are to be handled, partners are generally not held to a financial liability that they have not agreed to. Thus, option C correctly describes this nuanced situation in partnership law regarding the involvement of industrial partners in losses.